I've just upgraded to V5.10 and have run a model using PD 8010 part 2. For some reason the axial stresses reported are all 0.0 (zero). All the other stresses seem to be fine and it does the code stress checking OK (code stresses and allowables reported 'correctly'). I've definitely got (or should have) axial stresses, and it reports them if I use ASME B31.8 ch VIII instead of PD8010-2.
Is this a known bug in Caesar?
I'm using the 08... build of Caesar (but I haven't applied the extra hotfixes (and don't want to) but these don't seem to change anything that sounds related anyway). Couldn't find any previous posts in a couple of searches.
Cheers guys. Matt

No one can answer this question except for techsupport@coade.com. Send your job in.

OK, many thanks again Richard.
Have sent it in with the model so hopefully Loren will have a look at it.
Matt

Matt,

When you have a system with a single anchor and no other restraints, that system is effectively a cantilever beam (from an axial stress point of view). The axial stress in a cantilever beam is zero. Now, there is still longitudinal pressure stress and with all other codes it is included in the axial stress term in the extended stress report. We found that we did not initialize this in the output report array properly so it was not included in the axial stress term of the report for PD8010-2. It is important to note that the longitudinal pressure stress was still being calculated and used in the code stress equation for the equivalent stress. So your results will not change when we update the software to correctly include the longitudinal pressure stress term in the axial stress reported in output. We will include this fix in the next build of Caesar II. Also note that axial stress is not even computed in PD8010-2 so if you apply an axial force, the resultant axial stress will still be zero and won't be considered in the equivalent stress portion of the code stress.

Hi Loren,

We also have the same problem.

We don't understand your following statement:

"Also note that axial stress is not even computed in PD8010-2 so if you apply an axial force, the resultant axial stress will still be zero and won't be considered in the equivalent stress portion of the code stress."

The BD 8010 Part 2 Equivelant stress i.e. Von Mises clearly requires the calculation of the longitidinal stresses eg. axial + bending. So why would the inclusion of an additional axial load (additional to that of pressure) on a pipe not result in a change in the calculated longitudinal stress component of the Von Mises equivalent stress?

Thanks inadvance

Jamie